Interview Questions.

Top 100+ Pharma Microbiologist Interview Questions And Answers

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Top 100+ Pharma Microbiologist Interview Questions And Answers

Question 1. Describe The Colour (in A Gram Stained Smear) Of Gram Positive And Gram Negative Bacteria, Respectively?

Answer :

Gram positives: darkish blue/crimson
Gram negatives: crimson/purple
Question 2. Describe The three Important Parts Of The Bacterial Lipopolysaccharide?

Answer :

Lipid A + center polysaccharide + O-unique (polysaccharide) facet chain

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Question three. List The Possible Shapes Of Bacteria. Write One Example For Each Category?

Answer :

Coccus (round): Staphylococcus, Streptococcus
Rod: Clostridium, Corynebacterium, Gram bad rods
Curved rod: Vibrio
Helical: Spirochetes (Treponema, Borrelia, Leptospira)
Question 4. What Are The Essential Components Of Bacterial Cells? Specify At Least 3?

Answer :

Cytoplasm, nucleoid (genome), cellular membrane, (mobile wall)

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Question 5. Which Part Of The Bacterial Cell Carries The Endotoxin?

Answer :

Outer membrane of Gram poor bacteria

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Question 6. What Role Is Attributed To The Bacterial Capsule In The Infectious Process?

Answer :

Antiphagocytic effect, adhesion

Question 7. Describe The Definition For Obligate Anaerobic Bacteria?

Answer :

They are able to reflect best in the absence of oxygen (underneath anaerobic conditions).

Some of them are speedy killed via oxygen, a few are able to live on however do now not grow even as oxygen is present.

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Question eight. Describe The Definition For Facultative Anaerobic Bacteria?

Answer :

They are capable of replicate each in the presence and in the absence of oxygen. In cardio situations, they perform respiratory, in anaerobic circumstance, they carry out fermentation.

Question 9. What Does Sterilisation Mean?

Answer :

Sterilisation manner the killing or elimination of all microorganisms (such as bacterial spores).

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Question 10. Mention 3 Reliable Methods Of Sterilization?

Answer :

Autoclaving, warm air oven, gamma-radiation, filtration (fluids), fuel sterilization (no longer acceptable: boiling, pasteurization, UV!)
Specify an exact set of parameters (temperature and time) essential for effective sterilization by way of autoclaving!
121 °C for 20 min. (at 1 bar overpressure)
Specify an specific set of parameters (temperature and time) necessary for effective sterilization using a hot air oven (with movement)!
One hundred sixty °C for 60 min. (dry warmness)
Question eleven. What Does Disinfection Mean?

Answer :

The purpose of disinfection is the killing of pathogenic microbes. Resistant microbes and spores may live to tell the tale, so disinfection does not the kill all microbes.

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Question 12. Mention 5 Groups Of Disinfectants?

Answer :

Alcohols, phenol derivatives, detergents, chlorine, iodine, aldehydes

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Question 13. Mention 2 Groups Of Disinfectants Acting On The Microbial Membrane Structures?

Answer :

(cationic) detergents (quaternary ammonium compounds)
phenol compounds (cresol, hexachlorophene, chlorhexidine)
alcohols (ethanol, isopropanol)
Question 14. What Does Active Immunization Mean?

Answer :

It approach the switch of microbes or microbial merchandise (vaccines) to the human body to induce long-lasting immunity in opposition to a specific infectious disorder

Question 15. What Does Passive Immunization Mean?

Answer :

It means the administration of preformed antibody (immune globulins produced in animals or people) to the human body ensuing in brief-time period protection in opposition to a particular infectious ailment.

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Question sixteen. What Is The Nature Of Antigen In The Vaccines Used To Prevent Infections By Streptococcus Pneumoniae, Haemophilus Influenzae And Neisseria Meningitidis?

Answer :

Capsular polysaccharide (either by myself or conjugated to a provider protein)

Question 17. What Does The Vaccine Against Tuberculosis (bcg) Contain?

Answer :

Live attenuated Mycobacterium bovis (Bacille Calmette-Guerin)

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Question 18. What Does The Vaccine Against Pertussis Contain?

Answer :

Previously: killed bacteria

Currently: acellular vaccine (toxoid + other purified proteins)

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Question 19. What Do The Vaccine(s) Against Diphtheria And Tetanus Contain?

Answer :

Diphtheria and tetanus toxoid

Question 20. Specify The four Groups Of Bacterial Vaccines According To The Nature Of The Antigen?

Answer :

stay, attenuated vaccines
killed bacterial vaccines
toxoid vaccines
subunit vaccines (capsular polysaccharide or purified protein)
Question 21. What Are The Main Advantages And Disadvantages Of Live Attenuated Vaccines As Compared To Killed Vaccines?

Answer :

Advantages: induce no longer only serum antibodies but additionally mobile immunity and nearby IgA antibodies. Some may be implemented orally. Usually fewer doses are wanted.

Disadvantages: Attenuated traces can also revert to virulent in uncommon cases. They may additionally motive sickness in immunosuppressed patients. Live attenuated microbes are usually warmth sensitive and must be refrigerated.

Question 22. Mention 2 Bacterial Exotoxins That Act By Adp Ribosylation?

Answer :

Diphtheria toxin, cholera toxin, pertussis toxin

Question 23. Mention 2 Bacterial Exotoxins That Are Neurotoxic?

Answer :

Tetanus toxin, botulinum toxin

Question 24. What Is The Mechanism Of Action Of Diphtheria Toxin?

Answer :

Inhibition of protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells through ADP-ribosylation of ribosomal EF-2 (elongation issue-2)

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Question 25. What Is The Mechanism Of Action Of Tetanus Toxin?

Answer :

It causes spastic paralysis by using blocking off the discharge of inhibitory neurotransmitters (glycine and GABA) in synapses

Question 26. Mention At Least Three Of The Physiological Effects Of Septic Shock (characterised By The Presence Of Large Amount Of Bacterial Endotoxin In The Blood)?

Answer :

Fever, hypotension, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), complement activation, impaired organ perfusion, hypoglycaemia

Question 27. Mention 2 Non-essential Bacterial Organelles That Enhance Bacterial Virulence! Describe How Their Function Contributes To Pathogenicity?

Answer :

Capsule: antiphagocytic effect, adhesion to tissues
Fimbriae: binding to tissues
Flagellae: spreading the bacteria
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Question 28. Mention four Extracellular Enzymes Of Bacterial Origin Functioning As Virulence Factors?

Answer :

Coagulase, streptokinase (fibrinolysis), streptodornase (DNase), hyaluronidase, IgA protease, collagenase, elastase, urease.

Question 29. What Is A Vector? Write An Example?

Answer :

Vector is an arthropod that transmits infection from human to human, or from animal to human.

Examples. Tick – Lyme disorder; louse – epidemic typhus; mosquito – malaria

Question 30. Mention 2 Infectious Diseases That Are Transmitted To Humans By Tick Bites?

Answer :

Tick-borne encephalitis; Lyme-ailment; tularemia; Rocky-Mountain noticed fever; etc.

Question 31. What Is A Reservoir? Write An Example?

Answer :

The everyday host of a pathogen (human or animal) serving as a non-stop supply of infection to different hosts (consisting of human beings). Salmonella typhi – human; Yersinia pestis - rodents.

Question 32. Mention At Least five Possible Transmission Ways Of Infections? Respiratory Droplets (infectious Aerosol)?

Answer :

Faecal-oral
Direct touch (which includes sexual)
Fomites (inanimate gadgets)
Blood
Vectors (blood-sucking arthropods)
Question 33. What Is The Difference Between Prevalence And Incidence Of An Infectious Disease?

Answer :

It can be differentiated in continual illnesses. Prevalence: general number of diseases (consistent with a hundred,000 human beings). Incidence: number of recent instances in a year (according to a hundred,000 people).

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Question 34. Why Is Multi-drug Therapy Used For Tuberculosis?

Answer :

To save you the overgrowth of drug-resistant mutants all through the long remedy duration (if micro organism proof against one drug emerge, they're maximum probable inhibited through the other pills).

Question 35. What Is The Main Immune Defense Mechanism Against Mycobacterium Tuberculosis?

Answer :

Activated macrophages

Question 36. What Disease Is Caused By Mycobacterium Avium-intracellulare? What Patients Are Characteristically Susceptible To Infection?

Answer :

It causes TB, specially in immunosuppressed patients (which include AIDS sufferers).

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Question 37. Mention One Aerobic And One Anaerobic Bacterium Of The Normal Flora Of The Skin?

Answer :

Aerobic: Staphylococcus epidermidis

Anaerobic: Propionibacterium acnes

Question 38. Give Two Genuses For Each Category Of Bacteria?

Answer :

Gram superb cardio: Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Bacillus, Corynebacterium

Gram effective anaerobic: Clostridium, Actinomyces, Propionibacterium, Lactobacillus

Question 39. Which 3 Bacterial Species Are The Most Important Causative Agents Of Meningitis Among Babies (> 1 Month Of Age) And Children?

Answer :

Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae

Question 40. What Are The Main Symptoms In The Different Stages Of Syphilis?

Answer :

Primary syphilis: nontender ulcer (hard chancre)

Secondary lesions: maculopapular rash on pores and skin, and condylomata lata on mucous membranes

Tertiary level: granulomas (gummas), crucial worried device involvement (tabes dorsalis, paralysis progressiva), cardiovascular lesions (aortitis, aortic aneurysm)

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Question forty one. Which Are The Two Different Kinds Of Antibodies Used In The Diagnosis Of Syphilis? Give Examples For Tests Demonstrating Them?

Answer :

Reagin (nonspecific antibody) – RPR, VDRL (flocculation checks)

Immobilising (specific antibody) – TPHA (T. Pallidum hemagglutination),

FTA-ABS (fluorescent treponemal assay – with antibody absorption), TPI (T. Pallidum immobilisation test)

Question 42. What Is The Advantage And Disadvantage Of The Fta-abs Syphilis Serologic Test Compared To The Vdrl Test?

Answer :

Specific (treponemal) checks such as FTA-ABS are extra unique, however they can not be used to observe the efficacy of treatment (due to the fact the particular antibodies persist even after effective eradication of bacteria)

Question 43. Which Manifestations Are Characteristic For The Late Phases Of Lyme Disease?

Answer :

Arthritis, cardiac manifestations (myocarditis, pericarditis) and neurological involvement (meningitis, peripheral neuropathies)

Question forty four. Mention 4 Bacteria Causing Atypical Pneumonia?

Answer :

Chlamydia pneumoniae
Chlamydia psittaci
Coxiella burnetii
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Legionella pneumophila
Question 45. Which Two Diseases Are Caused By Rickettsia Prowazekii?

Answer :

Louse-borne epidemic typhus

Recurrent shape: Brill-Zinsser ailment

Question 46. What Is The Causative Agent Of Epidemic Typhus?

Answer :

Rickettsia prowazekii

Question forty seven. What Is The Causative Agent Of Endemic Typhus?

Answer :

Rickettsia typhi

Question 48. How Can Be Chlamydiae And Rickettsiae Cultivated?

Answer :

These are obligate intracellular micro organism, can be cultured in experimental animals, embryonated eggs, and cellular lifestyle

Question 49. List The Serotypes Of Chlamydia Trachomatis And The Diseases Caused By Them?

Answer :

Types A, B and C: trachoma (continual conjunctivitis)

Types D-K: genital tract infections (NGU, PID), inclusion conjunctivitis

Types L1-L3: lymphogranuloma venereum (STD)

Question 50. Why Are Penicillins Not Effective Against Mycoplasma Pneumoniae Infections?

Answer :

Because of the absence of a cellular wall, penicillins are useless (penicillins inhibit cell wall synthesis)

Question fifty one. Mention four Bacteria Frequently Causing Sexually Transmitted Diseases (std)?

Answer :

Treponema pallidum, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Haemophilus ducreyi, Chlamydia trachomatis, (Calymmatobacterium granulomatis)

Question fifty two. What Does Fungal Dimorphism Mean?

Answer :

The identical species is capable of current in  morphological forms (yeast or mould), depending on enviromental conditions (temperature, vitamins)

Question fifty three. Which Are The four Fungal Species Causing Systemic Mycosis?

Answer :

Coccidioides immitis, Histoplasma capsulatum, Blastomyces dermatitidis, Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

Question 54. Mention three Species Causing Opportunistic Fungal Infections?

Answer :

Candida albicans, Cryptococcus neoformans, Aspergillus fumigatus, Mucor spp., Rhizopus spp.

Question 55. What Are The Different Forms Of Pulmonary Aspergillosis?

Answer :

Aspergillus ball (in preformed cavities)

Invasive aspergillosis (in immunosuppression)

Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

Question fifty six. What Is The Usual Site Of Entry Of Fungi Causing Systemic Mycoses?

Answer :

Respiratory tract(Inhalation)

Question fifty seven. Which Human Pathogenic Fungus Has A Capsule?

Answer :

Cryptococcus neoformans

Question 58. What Are The 3 Modes Of Transmission For Human Toxoplasma Gondii Infection?

Answer :

Eating undercooked meat containing tissue cysts,
Contact with cat feces containing oocysts
Transplacental transmission
Question fifty nine. Which 2 Protozoa May Infect The Human Foetus Transplacentally?

Answer :

Toxoplasma gondii
Plasmodium species
Question 60. Which Species Are The Causative Agents Of Malaria?

Answer :

Plasmodium vivax, P. Ovale, P. Malariae, P. Falciparum

Question sixty one. What Is The Laboratory Diagnosis Of Malaria?

Answer :

Giemsa-stained blood smears. Thick smear is used to display screen for the agent, skinny smear is used to pick out the species.

Question sixty two. How Can One Diagnose Amebic Dysentery?

Answer :

Microscopic demonstration of E. Histolytica cysts and trophozoites from feces

Question sixty three. How Can One Diagnose Trichomonas Vaginalis Infection?

Answer :

Direct demonstration of protozoa in wet mount or stained smear of medical specimens (vaginal, urethral or prostatic secretions).

Question 64. How Can One Diagnose Intestinal Taeniasis?

Answer :

Demonstration of function proglottids and eggs (ova) in faeces.

Question 65. Mention 2 Worm Species That Migrate Through The Human Lungs In The Larval Stage?

Answer :

Ascaris lumbricoides
Ancylostoma duodenale
Necator americanus
Strongyloides stercoralis
Question sixty six. How Can One Diagnose Enterobius Infection?

Answer :

Demonstration of eggs (ova) recovered from perianal skin (Scotch tape method). Not from feces!

Question sixty seven. Mention 4 Tissue Infecting Filarial Nematodes?

Answer :

Wuchereria bancrofti
Loa loa
Onchocerca volvulus
Dracunculus medinensis
Question 68. How Is Human Fasciola Hepatica Infection Acquired?

Answer :

By ingesting aquatic flowers containing encysted larvae (Rarely: by consuming uncooked sheep liver containing adult worms)

Question 69. What Disease Is Caused If Humans Are Infected Per Os With Taenia Solium Eggs?

Answer :

Human cysticercosis (encysted larvae in brain, eyes, and so on.)

Question 70. Mention 2 Helminths Whose Larvae Enter The Human Body By Penetrating The Intact Skin?

Answer :

Schistosoma
Ancylostoma duodenale
Necator americanus
Strongyloides stercoralis
Question 71. What Are The Definitive, And The Intermediate Hosts Of Taenia Saginata, Respectively?

Answer :

Definitive host: human

Intermediate host: cattle

Question seventy two. What Are The Definitive, And The Intermediate Hosts Of Taenia Solium, Respectively?

Answer :

Definitive host: human

Intermediate host: swine (pig)

Question 73. What Is The Infectious Form Of Strongyloides Stercoralis?

Answer :

Filariform larva

Question seventy four. What Is The Infectious Form Of Trichuris Trichiura?

Answer :

Embryonated egg

Question seventy five. Is Autoreinfection Possible In Ascaris Lumbricoides Infection? If Yes, When?

Answer :

No, the eggs have to mature inside the soil for several days to emerge as infectious (embryonated)

Question 76. Is Autoreinfection Possible In Strongyloide Stercoralis Infection? If Yes, When?

Answer :

Yes, particularly in immunosuppression (as an example: AIDS)

Question 77. Is Autoreinfection Possible In Enterobius Vermicularis Infection? If Yes, When?

Answer :

Yes, the eggs end up infectious in a few hours, and ab ano ad os autoinfection can also occur (especially in youngsters)

Question seventy eight. Mention three Dna Virus Families Containing No Envelope?

Answer :

Parvoviridae, Papillomaviridae, Adenoviridae

Question seventy nine. Mention three Dna Virus Families Containing Envelope?

Answer :

Herpesviridae, Hepadnaviridae, Poxviridae

Question eighty. Mention three Rna Virus Families Containing No Envelope?

Answer :

Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Reoviridae

Question 81. Mention three Rna Virus Families Containing Envelope?

Answer :

Orthomyxoviridae, Paramyxoviridae, Rhabdoviridae, and many others.

Question 82. Which Virus Family Is Characterized By A Double-stranded Rna Genome?

Answer :

Reoviridae

Question 83. Reverse Transcription Is Involved In The Replication Of Which Dna Virus?

Answer :

Hepadnaviridae – HBV

Question 84. What Are The Serious Complications Of Hsv Infection In Newborns?

Answer :

Disseminated infections, encephalitis, skin, eye, mouth infections

Question 85. Which Viruses Are Susceptible To Acyclovir? What Is The Mechanism Of Effect Of The Drug?

Answer :

Alpha herpesviruses – HSV1, HSV2, VZV; inhibitor of viral DNA polymerase and DNA chain terminator

Question 86. Explain Why Acyclovir Is Selectively Toxic To Cells Infected By Alpha-herpesviruses?

Answer :

These viruses encode their very own thymidine kinase enzymes, which might be wanted for activation (phosphorylation) of the drug. Cellular thymidine kinase does not set off the drug.

Question 87. In Which Cells Do Herpes Simplex Viruses Establish Latent Infection?

Answer :

Sensory ganglion cells (trigeminal or sacral ganglia)

Question 88. What Is The Possible, Late Complication (years After Acute Infection) Of The Childhood Chickenpox?

Answer :

Herpes zoster (shingles)

Question 89. What Manifestations Does Cytomegalovirus Cause In Congenital Infections

Answer :

Cytomegalic inclusion disorder – spontaneous abortion, CNS damage (deafness, blindness, intellectual retardation), hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice

Question 90. What Disease Does Cytomegalovirus Cause In Immunocompetent Persons?

Answer :

Mononucleosis infectiosa (heterophile-antibody terrible)

Question 91. Describe The Heterophil Antibody Test Used In Epstein-barr Virus Diagnostics?

Answer :

Paul-Bunnel take a look at – in mononucleosis due to EBV, the serum of the affected person agglutinates sheep crimson blood cells

Question ninety two. What Is The Mechanism Of Antigenic Drift In Influenza Viruses?

Answer :

Accumulation of point mutations within the hemagglutinin and neuraminidase genes of influenza viruses

Question ninety three. What Is The Route Of Infection Of Rabies Virus? How Does Rabies Virus Spread In The Infected Body?

Answer :

By the chunk of a rabid animal, (not often by way of infectious aerosol) spread of the virus inside the host – alongside the axons

Question 94. What Medication Does A Person Need After Exposure To Rabies Virus?

Answer :

Active immunization – human diploid cell vaccine (killed virus) and passive immunization – rabies immune globulin

Question ninety five. What Is The Portal Of Entry Of Polioviruses? Which Areas Of The Central Nervous System Are Affected By Poliovirus Infection?

Answer :

Oropharynx and gastrointestinal tract harm in motor neurons inside the anterior horn of the spinal wire + brain stem

Question 96. Mention At Least 4 Diseases Caused By Coxsackie Viruses?

Answer :

Febrile rashes, herpangina, myocarditis, pericarditis, meningitis, pleurodynia, handfoot- and-mouth disease

Question 97. What Are The Main Modes Of Transmission Of Hbv (hepatitis B Virus) Infection?

Answer :

Sexual touch; perinatally from mom to newborn; via blood or blood products

Question ninety eight. Describe The Active And Passive Prophylaxis Against Hepatitis B?

Answer :

Active immunization: recombinant HBsAg vaccine

Passive immunization: HBIG (hepatitis B immune globulin)

Question 99. Which Hepatitis Viruses Are Acquired Via Parenteral Routes?

Answer :

HBV, HCV, HDV, (HEV)

Question one hundred. Mention four Diseases That Can Be Caused By Adenoviruses?

Answer :

Pharyngitis, pharyngoconjunctival fever, acute breathing sickness, bronchitis, peculiar pneumonia, hemorrhagic cystitis, gastrointestinal infection

Question one hundred and one. Mention At Least Two Viruses Frequently Causing Pneumonia?

Answer :

RSV, influenza virus A and B, parainfluenza virus, adenovirus, coronavirus (SARS),metapneumovirus

Question 102. What Are The Possible Consequences Of Fetal Infections Caused By Rubella Virus? Specify At Least three Of Them?

Answer :

Congenital malformations related to the heart (patent ductus arteriosus, septum defects), the eyes (cataract, glaucoma) and the brain (deafness, mental retardation).

Question 103. Mention 3 Human Prion Diseases?

Answer :

Kuru, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome, deadly familial insomnia

Question 104. Mention three Nucleoside (or Nucleotide) Type Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors Used In The Therapy Of Aids?

Answer :

Azidothymidine (zidovudine), abacavir, lamivudine, emtricitabine, tenofovir, dideoxyinosine (didanosine), dideoxycytidine (zalcitabine), stavudine

Question one zero five. What Is The Principle Of The „surprisingly Active Antiretroviral Therapy” (haart) Currently Used In The Treatment Of Aids?

Answer :

Combination of  nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (2 NRTI) with either an nucleoside opposite transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) or a protease inhibitor (PI) or an integrase inhibitor (II) 2 NRTI + NNRTI / PI / II

Question 106. What Does The Term Robovirus Mean? Write An Example For A Robovirus?

Answer :

Robovirus: rodent reservoir (rodent-borne)

Arenaviridae – Lassa, Junin, Machupo, LCM virus; Bunyaviridae – Hantaan virus,

Puumala virus, Sin Nombre virus; Filoviridae – Marburg, Ebola virus

Question 107. What Does The Term Arbovirus Mean? Write An Example For An Arbovirus!

Answer :

Arbovirus: arthropode vector (arthropode-borne);

Flaviviridae – yellow fever, Dengue-fever; Bunyaviridae – Rift-valley fever, Crimean- Congo hemorrhagic fever; etc.

Question 108. Describe The 2 Different Epidemiological Cycles Of Yellow Fever?

Answer :

Jungle yellow fever: reservoir: monkeys; vector: Haemagogus mosquitoes; humans: accidental hosts Urban yellow fever: reservoirs: people; vectors : Aedes aegypti mosquitoes

Question 109. Mention At Least four Opportunistic Infections Characteristic For Aids?

Answer :

Viruses: HSV-1, HSV-2, VZV, CMV, EBV, HHV-8, HPV

Protozoa: Toxoplasma gondii, Pneumocystis jiroveci

Bacteria: Mycobacterium tuberculosis, extraordinary Mycobacteria, Salmonella septicaemia

Fungi: Candida, Cryptococcus neoformans

Question one hundred ten. List At Least Three Viruses Capable Of Causing (meningoencephalitis?

Answer :

Rabies, HSV, VZV, tick-borne encephalitis, Japanese B encephalitis, eastern and western equine encephalitis, mumps, poliovirus, coxsackie virus, echovirus




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